MNP6103: Protein-Losing Enteropathy - Chronic Pancreatitis - Management Assignment Help

Assignment Task :

CASE STUDIES PART ONE:
Answer the following questions related to several cases presentations, and in each case give rationales for your answers. Provide references after each case to back up your answers. References should be up to date and evidence based. Websites will not be acceptable.
1. A 55-year-old businessman presents to the emergency department with altered vision and a headache. He has been told for 10 years that his blood pressure is ‘borderline’ and, although treatment has been suggested, he has declined medications. He drinks 6 standard alcoholic drinks per night, every night of the week. Which of the following features suggests that he has a hypertensive emergency?  
A A reading of 180/110 mm
B The presence of retinal bleeding
C The presence of +protein on urine dipstick
D The presence of a 4th heart sound (S4) on cardiac auscultate
E An electrocardiogram showing atrial fibrillation

2. A 50 year-old man is hospitalized for recurrent epigastric pain, anorexia and diarrhea. He was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus 4 months ago. He describes his stools as loose, greasy and foul-smelling and difficult to flush. He has had 4 previous admissions with acute pancreatitis. He currently drinks 15 standard drinks of alcohol per day and has done so for several years. Serum amylase and lipase levels are normal. He has also noticed poor night vision lately. What is the most likely diagnosis for his recurrent abdominal pain? 
A Acute pancreatitis
B Chronic pancreatitis
C Peptic ulceration
D Protein-losing enteropathy
E Gastritis

3. A 42-year-old woman is referred with uncomfortable abdominal fullness which has been present for 6 weeks. She is alcohol-dependent, drinking 100 g of alcohol daily for the past 12 years. Her background medical history is positive for diabetes mellitus and thyroid disease, and she takes metformin as well as thyroxine. She has significant family history and denies intravenous drug use. On examination her blood pressure is 110/80 mmHg with a pulse rate of 80 beats/min. She has scleral icterus and spider nevi across the precordium. The abdomen is distended, with 8 cm shifting dullness. There is no palpable hepatomegaly or splenomegaly- Blood tests reveal thrombocytopenia and an elevated bilirubin level of 76 micro mol/L (reference range [RR] 3-15). Her coagulation profile is abnormal with an INR (international normalized ratio) of 2.0. There is mild transaminitis. The creatinine is 280 micro mol/L (RR 45-85). An abdominal ultrasound confirms the presence of ascites. The liver has increased echotexture and is small. No portal or hepatic vein obstruction is seen. What is the next most appropriate step in management?  
A. Perform a diagnostic paracentesis. 
B. Commence ceftriaxone intravenously and give intravenous albumin.
C. Commence fluid restriction along with frusemide and spironolactone.
D Perform urinary electrolyte analysis.
E Arrange transjugular intrahepatic shunting (TIPS)

4. A 70-ysar-old woman presents to her family physician for an annual health check. Routine full blood count reveals hemoglobin 125 g/L (reference range [RR] 115-165), white cell count 23.5 x lo9/L (RR 4.0-11.0) with differential of neutrophils 7.0 x 109/L (RR 2.0-7.5), lymphocytes 15.0 x 109/L (RR 1.5-4.0), normal numbers of monocytes, eosinophils and basophils, and platelets 395 x 109/L (RR150-400). Blood film findings report the presence of ‘smear cells’. She has no particular symptoms. Clinical examination does not identify any lymphadenopathy or hepatosplenomegaly- Routine biochemical tests, including lactate dehydrogenase, are within normal limits. Which of the following is the best next in her management? 

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